I have a dataset of fish counts (abundance) where the majority of the spatial variation is along a North-South gradient (higher abundance in the South), but the data also has a repeated measures aspect (same locations surveyed each year). If I want to model spatial variation, but latitude and my random intercept (for survey site) are perfectly correlated, can I drop the random intercept in place of latitude (latitude of each survey location)? I know they're not the same thing, but how can I tell if this is valid?
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